My husband and I have had a really bad time , long story short- we sold our house years ago. He had so many debts that I was the only one to get a mortgage so although he put in capital in, I put in more. The house was therefore put in my name. He has certainly paid towards the mortgage. So he has an ownership in the property I believe. The question I ask , is should I be responsible for servicing for half the mortgage or less as I more of a deposit.