I've been in a muddle about this for a long time, and I wanted opinions.
I'm now divorcing my exH, we split 3 years ago, unfaithful/abusive marriage. One of the things that really traumatised me and hurt me was the fact that whilst he was sleeping with other women, he still used me for sex at home. I knew our marriage wasn't right but also no idea at the time that he was sleeping with other people. It made me feel so violated and used, like my body was good enough for sex but my heart and feelings and our marriage wasn't important. I could have been given an STI for all I knew (luckily I was fine). He slept with multiple people whilst still sleeping with me and I was having sex with him being one of many unknowingly. I know typical affair symptoms etc but he gave none of those. He wasn't put off sleeping with me whilst he slept around. I would have much preferred him to "go off" sex with me whilst he was cheating.
How do you define this? I keep seeing the topic of sexual coercion but I feel like maybe I'm being dramatic in feeling like I was manipulated into sex unknowingly? It just left such a feeling of violation that my husband did that to me, knowing he was sleeping around. Maybe it's just part of betrayal trauma?