Just wanting to get perspective on this…
Marriage of 15 years has recently broken down due to a number of reasons. I’m processing some potential abusive aspects of the relationship such as silent treatment, gaslighting etc and now I think financial abuse may have existed.
H had been the breadwinner and I’ve always held down a decent job. When we married I had inherited £50k, which we used as a deposit for a home, making mortgage payments relatively comfortable ( we live in the North East so house prices are not bad here!)
H paid the bills and holidays and I paid the food shopping, kids dinner moneys etc. Over the last 5 years or so, H’s income has massively increased (offshore worker) and earns between £7k-£10k a month, I’m on £30k a year. Don’t get me wrong, we’ve had a comfortable life, but looking back, I’ve never felt like he was a sharer. He was paid into his business account and I’ve never really had oversight.
The final nail in the coffin was his purchase of an apartment abroad ‘for us’ that I told him I had absolutely no interest in and if he had that much money, I could think of more important things to spend it on, such as maintaining our home.
He went ahead and bought it anyway.
He now wants me back, is showering me with expensive gifts (that I’ve never had before) and thinks selling the apartment will make things better.
Has he been financially abusive? Just a bit fucking dim? Or am I in the wrong for not noticing his lack of sharing previously and not speaking up? Help me get my head around this…..