Legal question

[Lissy332]

Me and my husband have been married for 2 years. I own a property in only my name before we married. We now have a house aswell In both of our names. I’m in the process of selling my own property. If we divorce is he entitled to half of it? We lived at my own property for 2 years and we split the Mortage payments whilst he was there.
May seem like a silly question but Iv been told different things. Thanks!

Yes he'll have a claim, as a married man. Maybe not half, but it would be up to a court to decide how much.

Yes, he will have a claim if/when you split, especially if the house is sold and the money becomes capital accumulated during the marriage.

As above, yes he will. But how much also depends on when you divorce. Next week, and his claim to property owned by you prior to the marriage would be far less than if you divorce in fifteen years’ time when all your assets have been combined and you have a family.