Posting for perspective...
H has instigated a separation agreement and claimed our date of separation was two years ago, although I only removed myself from the marital home at the beginning of Feb. Will the council tax bills be enough to evidence where I was living?
Can anyone tell me how the marital home should be valued for the purpose of a financial settlement? It's in his sole ownership. Cohabited in homes he's owned himself for approximately 13 years, married for 6 and we have two children who I have stayed at home and looked after while also running two businesses as he wouldn't pay for childcare (I couldn't. Don't earn enough).
Purchased 2018. Valued 220k bought for 190.
Approximately 110k left to pay on mortgage.
When he remortgaged at the end of a 3 year fix in June last year the bank valuation was £220k and the payments dropped by £50 a month.
He presumably wants to say we separated Feb 2020 to minimise the value of the equity in the house. He wants to keep the marital home. Would a calculation of equity be done on £190k (80k equity) or 220k (110k equity) for a financial settlement?
I want two years separation before divorce to give me a chance to get into a position where someone would lend to me for a mortgage before I receive any large sum of cash as it affects my entitlement to universal credit, which I need in order to be able to house myself while I increase my earnings. Really don't want to pour away settlement cash on rent and I won't be in a position to borrow until 2024. I won't get anything like half the equity in the house but I would like to leave with a hefty deposit for a 1 bed flat. I'm likely to be able to buy something decent for under £60k here.
Any and all comments would be welcome. I'm at my wit's end because what he really wants is for me to quietly go away with an 8k van which I need in order to work. I sort of feel 13 years and and the two kids I gave him are worth a bit more than that.