Guys this is my first contribution-I need your help desperately and pronto!I am a UK citizen and I went to marry this guy abroad in 2005.I left him there abroad so we could sort out his residence here(UK).He later joined me in 2006 when his residency had been sorted out.However ,before he joined me I already had a flat that I had purchased through a mortgage on my own.I then decided to purchase another property in 2007 and sourced for the full deposit needed for the property by myself. I added him on the title deed and arranged that he be added onto the mortgage itself. This property was specifically meant to cater for the complex needs of my disabled son from a previous marriage, we did not have any children in the marriage.However I started having problems with his payments where they were erratic meaning some months I would end up having to pay the whole monthly mortgage sum by myself as he could not afford his part.Our relationship soured and deteriorated and in 2010 January he moved out.We later divorced in 2012.Since moving out and getting divorced I have been paying the mortgage by myself to date. I am now in a new happy relationship ,I got married 2017.My questions are:
-what is he entitled to considering he only paid a very small amount of money towards the mortgage (around 7 months worth).
-when we divorced he did not make any financial claim because he was aware that he did not make any substantive contribution to the property.
-I have spend huge sums of money adapting the place so as to cater for my disabled son.
-the ex left me to deal with financial constraints of the mortgage and the disability of my son without any support.
-I went into a lot of debt just to afford the mortgage which I am still paying for.
I want to remove him from the mortgage and title deed but he is refusing to cooperate.How can I proceed in doing this by myself without involving him?
Anyone know of a good but affordable lawyer in London?Please!