To explain a bit more. I’ve been with DP now for over 2 years. We did use to live together, but due to work and location we don’t anymore. It’s a semi-long distance relationship (no pun intended there!)
We still see each other 2-3 times a week.
Several months ago he was started on 20mg of Citalopram, but struggled with side effects within hours of taking it, so after 2 weeks he dropped it to 10mg and seemed to be managing better.
During this time he had maybe 2 occasions where he struggled to maintain an erection, or couldn’t cum, but otherwise I thought all was well (no biggy to me, but i do understand that for some men this can become an issue).
We had sex when last together and he mentioned after climaxing that it would be “several days worth”. When I asked what he meant, he said that he had not been able to ejaculate when masturbating.
He had a review of meds today at the GP and mentioned this and they have prescribed the above at 50mg.
Is it wrong of me to now feel as though there will be no spontaneity and what if he takes it and I then don’t feel in the mood?
I now feel under pressure!
I know people will say that we need to talk, but he didn’t talk to me before asking for it.
If I’m overreacting, then by all means say, but tell me why I am.
I am a bit conflicted