Just to give you a bit of backstory, dh and I have been separated for a year due to his alcoholism. It's been a roller coaster of a marriage with his drink issues and a year ago he went into rehab for the second time. I and the dc had seen and dealt with enough and I decided on a separation.
It's been amicable and he has remained clean and sober for the year. We have had a lot of counselling as a family and individually (all of us including the dc). I attend alanon meetings and my husband is also in a 12 step programme which he is very committed too.
So, we came to the decision to end the separation and for him to come back and live at home, which we are all very happy about.
However, we had sex for the first time last night and although it was great for me, he didn't orgasm. This has only happened once before and that was when he was drinking again without my knowledge (I think he felt guilty). I'm almost positive he's not drinking now, but I can't help but wonder why a man who supposedly hasn't had sex for a year wouldn't be coming like a bullet out of a gun!
I think it's possible that he was maybe having some casual sex during the separation and perhaps he's feeling guilty about it - or maybe there is a relationship still going on. The truth is that if this is the case I don't think I could forgive him in my heart as we have been working so hard to get our family back on track. My head tells me that I would be unreasonable to get my knickers in too much of a knot as we have been officially separated for the past year, but another part of me would find this behaviour totally unacceptable. We have talked about whether either of us had conducted any sexual relationships during our separation prior to making a decision to get back together. He says he hasn't.
I'm really not sure what to do, as I almost don't want to ask as I may not react well to the answer - but I also don't want to sit on a resentment which may be totally unfounded.
So, am I reading far to much into his failure to orgasm? - I really don't know!