This is linked to the issue I have namechanged for, so am using the same pseudonym for this one!
DD's Dad (my exH) and myself have never been brilliant at communication - it was a huge issue in our marriage, and has continued since we split 3 years ago.
I don't think it's just me although he has always tried to attribute it as such -despite his assertions that I am the only person who has a problem understanding him, there are weekly "misunderstandings" between him and one or other of the professionals involved in DD's life that I am often left to unpick; last week it was the school uniform supplier, the week before it was her class teacher etc. I know there have been previous issues at work, too I'm not saying it's all his fault either, I'm sure I could try harder and not leap to conclusions - but the continual lack of effective communication is a barrier to any kind of joint parenting.
A few days ago, he sent me an email which set out two options regarding arrangements for DD. He ended the email with the sentence "DD now has a choice".
I took that to mean that he had decided that either of the two options that he presented in the email were suitable and that he had placed the decision in DD's hands, and responded accordingly.
His reply today states that his intent was to open discussion with me, and that he has not given DD the choice of anything.
Is it me? Is my understanding so obscure that I really can't see how the statement "DD now has a choice" can be interpreted as an invitation to discuss the issue and put other options on the table?
How on earth can I co-parent with someone with whom I share no common ground when it comes to interpreting the English language?
I'm desperate for suggestions and ideas. Both our first languages are English, so that is not the barrier - it really does seem to be a problem with our ability to understand the meaning of each others words. HELP!