Just having a theoretical discussion and cant make head nor tail of the freehold logic for flats
I saw a flat on Rightmove which only had 16 years left on the lease, its of course much much cheaper than it would be if it had a proper lease.
Why would a freeholder agree to extend that lease, for lets say 50k (assuming a lease would be about that much, not sure if thats the sort of ball park figure for them), when in 16 years, you have the whole flat that you then own, which presumably you can kick the former owner out of and then own the flat, make a new lease and sell for a much higher price?
Am I missing something?