I am based in England and hoping to understand my legal position regarding an insurance claim.
I purchased a property and exchanged contracts before completion. As is standard in many purchases, my solicitor advised that the risk passed to me on exchange, so I arranged unoccupied buildings insurance from the date of exchange.
Unfortunately, a water leak occurred between exchange and completion while the property was still vacant. I reported the claim to the insurer shortly after discovering the damage and a loss adjuster was appointed. The claim has been ongoing for several weeks while they investigate.
The insurer has now asked for several pieces of information to verify policy conditions. One of the conditions is that the central heating system must have been operating at a minimum temperature while the property was unoccupied.
To evidence this, they have asked me to provide utility bills showing gas/electric usage between exchange and the date of the leak.
The problem is that during this period the utilities were still in the seller’s name, as completion had not yet taken place. I therefore do not have access to these bills and never did. I have asked via my solicitor if the seller could provide them, but the seller has refused.
For context, before exchange I arranged for the boiler to be serviced to ensure the heating system was operational, and I can provide documentation confirming the system was working.
My question is:
Can an insurer legally reject a claim purely because I cannot provide utility bills that were never in my name and which I do not have access to, even though I have attempted to obtain them?
In other words, does my duty to cooperate with the insurer extend to obtaining documents from third parties who are not obligated to provide them?
Any guidance on how this situation is normally handled in insurance disputes would be appreciated.