DH has his own company that he started almost two years ago. He pays himself a salary, and me (I work for him part time and work elsewhere part time) and other staff.
He says that he is self-employed and therefore mortgages are harder and we have to wait until two years of business income and do the self employment mortgage route.
He’s probably right, but I can’t help but think: since he pays himself a salary, is he still classed as “self-employed”?
I mean, I know he is. But he is also paid by his own company. Averaging out his last two years salary (if he were classed as self employed) is less than he pays himself now, if you see what I mean.