Looking for some views please.
We're in the process of buying a probate home. For context, it's a detached home with a long driveway leading up to it. The driveway only leads to our new home. When we viewed it (multiple times) we were assured by the estate agent that the drive is owned by the property. However it's a probate house, so really I think they were just assuming that.
In the deeds, it's turned out that the driveway is owned by next door, who originally owed the land our house was subsequently built on. We have shared access which the solicitor has assured us can't be removed without our consent and there's no reason why they'd need to use it. It's on the deeds that the responsibility for maintenance of the space is with us as a return for using the driveway. It's in great condition.
I'm now not sure what we should do.
A) not worry about it. We have access and it doesn't really matter who owns it
B) move in and later on ask the neighbour if we can purchase it, although they're old so presumably in the next 10 years it would be likely they'll sell to new buyers.
C) drop the offer price
D) withdraw from purchase
I'm leaning towards either b or c. We love the property but it just feels very strange. We're also maxing out our borrowing potential, it won't be easy for us to raise funds to purchase the land later IF they let us. And if for any reason we need to sell in the coming years, we can't afford to lose money on it if this is what puts people off. I also find it very controlling that the neighbour owns our driveway, I prefer to own all of what I use.
What would you do?