Hi, my understanding is that a Landlord cannot unreasonably withhold or delay consent as per section 19(2) of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1972 even if this is not expressly stated in the text of the lease. Can anyone on here advise if this is true? Our solicitor is saying we can't argue landlord is causing unreasonable delays even though they've taken 3 months to instruct a solicitor and surveyor and their solicitor ignores all attempts to get any updates all because this clause is not expressly stated in our lease. I find this a bit difficult to believe to be honest. And a quick google says for a qualified covenant unreasonably holding or delaying consent is implied if not expressly stated.
For context, we own 50% freehold share and this is for a residential property so 2 flats and not a commercial lease.
I would like to go back to our solicitor with what I've found but want to check if anyone knows this to be true or is this up to interpretation.