I'm after some advice from people more experienced than me (not difficult)! I own a house with my ex partner and we still live together as friends until our mortgage runs out later this year. My new partner and I are buying a house together and he's a first time buyer so we thought it would be a good idea for him to buy the property and be able to be chain free/not incur SDLT with a view to us officially jointly owning it once my house is sold. The plan is to split the deposit with both our savings and then I'll put the money from my house sale into the new house by overpaying over 2 years so as not to incur charges. He's secured a mortgage on his salary and he's a much higher earner than me so he's going to pay the mortgage until I can contribute.
Anyway, it's now at the point where we've found a house and had an offer accepted. He needs to firm up the mortgage offer and the broker has asked if any of his deposit is a gift, which I assume my money falls into the category of? I naively just thought I could transfer him my money and I trust him implicitly (we've been friends since we were 13 and we're almost 40!) so that's not an issue. To make matters more complicated the house doesn't meet the SDLT threshold as it's under 250k so I'm now wondering what the best approach is; can I go down as an investor and be on the deeds with my deposit share but not the mortgage? The plan is that I'd be on the mortgage once my own house is sold and I would be on the deeds - is this possible within the first mortgage term or would we need to wait for the initial 2/5 years to be up? Or could I go on another mortgage but with £0 income or would this have implications as I'd technically own a second house.
Any advice or experience would be appreciated.