Not an excuse but let me preface by stating I bought this property to live in 15 years ago when fresh out of university; it's been let out for about the last 10 years due to me having to leave the area due to DV. Sale is now going through - I'll admit I'm a little clueless about property and was even more clueless back then!
During the sale process I've been sent a copy of the original lease agreement from 1990 (which I honestly don't ever remember seeing when I bought it). One of the stipulations is that all areas other than the bathroom and kitchen must remain carpeted to minimise noise levels in the flats. There was carpet in situ when I moved in but I have cats and they ripped it to bits so I replaced the living room/bedroom carpets with wooden flooring and the hallway with tiles (kitchen is wood, bathroom is tiled).
My solicitor is now asking if they can contact the landlord about me breaking this condition or if I want to see if the buyer will accept an indemnity statement from me - can the landlord issue me with any consequences for doing this?!
To be honest I'm shocked it was even in there given that I bought the place, yes I know it's under a lease but still. Also it's a ground floor flat so noise into the property below would never be an issue!