We are selling our flat and our buyer wants to rent the property out. We tried to sell our flat in 2018 and the buyer at the time wanted to rent our flat out so we asked the freeholder if it was possible and they said they didn't have an issue with it but that sale fell through for other reasons.
With the consent from 2018, also the flat above us is owned by the freeholder and has been rented out forever and when we bought our flat it was being rented, so we thought it would be ok for anyone to let out. We have just found out that the only thing left is to get the up to date consent from the freeholder, the buyers solicitors have been waiting for 3 weeks now and we are getting worried. I guess he can change his mind but how could he rent out his property, is it just because he is the freeholder and the lease does not apply to him?
The only thing in the lease is the Following:
Not to use or suffer the use of the flat for any purpose other than that of a single private dwelling house in the occupation of one family only.
Thanks