Complicated one here.
My husband and I separated about 8 years ago. The children and I went on to rent somewhere near my mum who then gave me a deposit to buy somewhere four years ago. H stayed in the (what was) family home and still does.
Never officially divorced but we both lived seperatly for all these years paying our own bills etc.
Now I've decided to sell up as my mortgage has gone up a lot and a lot of maintenance costs here that I can't realy afford on my (not very great) salary. I want to go as I don't like the area either for different reasons so it's not just a case of getting a loan to do repairs etc.
H and I have recently been in better contact and have thought about getting a place big enough for all of us (we have 3 kids) if we can manage it.
He is putting his home on the market next week.
I'm trying to sort out finances and wondered whether we would have to pay CGT now if we sell both the houses ( that we've lived in seperately continuously since break up but never oficially divorced) and bought one together.
None of the proceeds for my place came from him (I have my own mortgage and mum's deposit on mine and he is the only one on the titles deeds on his as I am on mine.