We are FTBs who had a recent purchase fall through. I’m confused about something our solicitor said, regret not asking for clarification at the time and can’t ask now (will re-instruct when we find another house to buy), so am hoping someone here could shed some light!
He mentioned that if we wanted to renegotiate the price post-survey based on the cost of any works/repairs, the mortgage lender would require two quotes to show it was a genuine price. Why would a lender care about this? I assumed we’d reduce the mortgage and deposit proportionately and keep the LTV the same, so what do they care? What am I missing? Thanks for any insight!