Hoping someone here may be able to help as our past solictor was more than useless. In 2013 I bought my first property, a flat. In 2016 I inherited part of a house overseas, which I still own. In 2017 I sold my first flat and went into rented for a few months. I then purchased a house in early 2018 and the solicitor told me I had to pay the additional 3% rate as I already owned property abroad. Made sense. But looking into it now, did I not actually replace my main residence and as such did not have to pay the additional rate? Or is that only when you have a seamless transaction, i.e. not go into rented in between?