We are buying a property and come across these covenants in our searches, I can't see the logic here as they seem to contradict each other but wonder if anyone here can shed some light on this.
Property/land has been changed hands three times, first two transactions seems like they were land transactions and no property was built at the time, third transaction is between the property developer and my sellers who bought the property as a new build back in 1982
Below are the years of transactions and restrictive covenants relating to altering the building
- 1980 Company A- > Company B : Not to erect or make alterations or additions to the elevations of the dwellinghouse and garage without the written consent of the...
- 1981 Company B -> Company C : Not to erect or make alterations or additions to the elevations of the dwellinghouse and garage without the written consent of the..
- 1982 Company C -> Mr XXX : Within a period of 10 years from the date 1982 not without the transferor's prior written consent to erect or place or suffer to be erected or placed on any part of the property any additional building or erection not to make or suffer to be made any addition to the outside of or which may affect the stability of present buildings on the property and to pay to the transferor a reasonable fee for considering any request for such consent.
Mr XXX has extended the property in 1995 which is 13 years after 1982 so it doesn't breach the last covenant, but in breach of the first two if they are enforceable.
My question is does the covenants mentioned in 1 & 2 still valid/enforceable in this example? if so, what is the point of 3rd one anyway with 10 a year expiry period when first two has no expiry.
Looking at this logically without any legal knowledge I feel third one must be overriding the first two but my solicitor and couple of others I've spoken to disagrees with me.
I've also learnt that if a breach of a restrictive covenant has existed for 20 years or more, without any complaint by the person with the benefit of the restrictive covenant, they will no longer be able to enforce against the breach.
Or I can get an indemnity policy as the last option, but I'd like to know the actual logic here.
Many thanks.