CGT

[Chippyt1]

hi. I am very confused … my ex and I divorced many years ago and I was awarded the matrimonial home, which I had to sell … I was unable to get a mortgage and after months of renting my ex husband agreed to take out a mortgage in his name only but the house would be mine, I paid the substantial deposit and pay the mortgage each month. My ex went on to buy his own property… he has now remarried and sold his own property and has a new mortgage with his new wife. In 2 years time I will have paid off the mortgage on ‘my’ property but the deeds will be in his name, which he will then transfer to me …. Will he, or, I be liable for CGT ? He has no financial interest in my home and no money will be exchanging hands …. Obviously if CHT does apply I don’t expect him to pay it, it would be my responsibility… thanks in anticipation

I had a complicated situation where a house was in my name but I didn't receive the funds when it was sold (rightly) - I consulted advice from a solicitor and an accountant.

The conclusion was that the person who recieves the money is liable for the CGT.

But don't trust a randomer on a forum! Definitely confirm with a professional.

I presume you have some sort of charge on the house or joint ownership on the basis that protects your share of large deposit etc.
But you need to consult the solicitor who perhaps dealt with it in the first place