I am selling a leasehold flat. The freeholder/landlord is a housing association. Around 12 years ago I obtained consent from the HA to install wooden flooring. I was informed via e-mail it was fine as long as I put in underlay and the owner of the ground floor flat below me was agreeable. Both conditions were met.
At the beginning of the sale process the buyer’s solicitor asked for proof of consent. Unfortunately I no longer have the e-mail I received 12 years ago from the HA. I asked the HA if they could resend it and they said no as the rules have changed since I originally obtained consent and they can now only give consent upfront to occupiers of ground floor properties.
However they then inspected the flooring and said it was fine, does not need to be removed and they would only ask for removal if the owner of the ground floor flat complained. This was put in writing and sent to the buyer’s solicitor.
The owner of that flat has not made a complaint in the 12 years the flooring has been in place and has confirmed, verbally and in writing, that he cannot hear any noise from my flat (lovely guy who is trying to help). I have two children who run up and down all day long so any issues would have been noted by now.
My Estate Agent called me yesterday to say the buyer wants a £7k reduction to cover costs in case she has to remove the flooring in the future. I am confident there is zero chance of my downstairs neighbour complaining so I have offered to draw up a legal contract confirming I will cover all costs if she has to remove the flooring in the future but a reduction in sale price at this point is out of the question.
Does this seem fair? We are due to exchange in one week, the buyer was made aware of the flooring issue 3 months ago (and I made an offer re covering costs at the time similar to the one I’m making now) and I feel as if she is trying to force my hand by making this last minute demand.
Thank you if you've got this far!