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how do you work out how much of a % houseprices have risen?

5 replies

Linnet · 17/11/2007 02:22

If a house was valued in October 06 at 75,000 and then 1 year later was valued at 90,000 how much of a percentage rise is that?

I have no idea how to work this out, so please could someone help me? I know it's probably a very simple calculation but I don't know if I'm doing it right.

OP posts:
malfoy · 17/11/2007 05:09

I make it nearly 17%.

90,000 minus 75,000 = 15,000
then
15,000 divided by 90,000 multiplied by 100.

Linnet · 18/11/2007 00:14

Ah, that's what I round about worked it out as. Just wasn't sure if I'd done it correctly.

Does 17% not seem to be a huge increase in price in the space of a year, and I do mean exactly one year apart.

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bran · 18/11/2007 00:29

It doesn't really mean anything until the house is sold, up until then it's just estate agents opinions. It's not unusual for 3 different estate agents to value a property at the same time and come up with wildly different values, of more than 20% sometimes.

nannynick · 18/11/2007 00:31

Depends on the area, some areas are increasing in price quickly, some increasing slowly, while others are I would expect dropping a bit.

House value is one thing... house sale prices are another. So one thing you could look at is the house prices in the street - have they been going up/down/staying the same. Sites like www.houseprices.co.uk let you search by postcode and see house sales data for the past few years (tip, once you have done a search, click the map option, to see average prices in the streets in the local area).

Linnet · 18/11/2007 00:56

It's kind of complicated because it's a right to buy. It's also flats I'm talking about not houses, sorry should have said that at the start incase it makes a difference.

a neighbour of mine had her flat valued and then bought it and hers was valued at 75,000. She only has half the back garden, it's shared with the flat upstairs and at the front of her flat are parking spaces, so no land there that is hers alone.

Our flat was valued last week, exactly a year after hers, and they valued it at 90,000. What we don't know is if the guy who valued it assumed that all the backgarden is ours or took into consideration that we would only get half the back garden as well. Can't seem to find out either. We have gardens at the front of our flat but again don't know if we would get all of it or only half with the other half going to the flat upstairs.

I'm just finding it hard to believe that our flat, which is exactly the same at the one across the street, same size, same number of rooms etc, has jumped £15,000 in the space of a year. only slight difference is the parking spaces/land at the front.

Other flats in our street haven't sold recently but the one next door to us is up for sale at the moment(having been bought about 20 years ago) at over 100,000 but it has a new bathroom, kitchen, all the land at the front and back and a conservatory.

I'm just staggered that in the space of a year there has been a 17% price increase. I feel that if it's been valued with all the land included and then we only get half the land then the valuation is wrong and should be a bit lower.

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