This is probably a stupid question and I was so sure of myself until my colleague said I was wrong.
My dad is purchasing a house in cash. I'm of the opinion that HE transfers the money to the solicitor before completion (with whatever is on the completion statement).
My colleague seems to think THEY will take the money directly from his bank account.
I was so sure he had to physically do the BACS payment himself. I've only ever bought a house with a mortgage, so slightly different in that they draw down mortgage funds.
Am I wrong?