Hi. So we bought a flat in south London 5 years ago and we are now selling it. We planned to stay here much longer but for various reasons we need to move and upsize. The flat has got a shorter lease now which will affect the price (86 years).
We're considering selling it to the local authority because it would be much quicker and simpler (council is a cash buyer, no chain, no agent fees and no need to go through the hassle of extending the lease as they will factor that in their offer).
We are currently waiting for their official offer and I'm trying to work out what price we can accept so that we're not at a loss.
So here's a few numbers
- We bought the flat for £396,000
- We had a 100,000 deposit
- We paid £24000 in fees and stamp duty (higher rate)
- Outstanding mortgage will be £258,000 when we sell
- We made monthly payments of £1090 for 5 years in capital repayments, so £65,400 in total
The way I calculate it is as follows:
If we sell the flat for the same amount we bought it, this would mean we'd make a profit of £14,000 (i.e. 396,000 - 258,000 = 138,000;
138,000 - 124,000 = 14,000).
However the way I understand whether we're at a loss is to ask whether we would have been better off renting a similar property for 5 years. So I work it out by taking the amount we paid to the bank in 5 years (65,400) minus the profit (14000) and divide it by 5 years x 12 months.
65400 - 14000 = 51,400
51,400 : 5 : 12 = 856.67
The average monthly rent for a similar property in this area is £1400 and we "lost" only £857 pcm, so we've made a profit.
Is this the correct way of looking at it?
The council's offer will probably be lower than if we went through an agent, but I'd really prefer the council as we would be immediately proceedable with a simple chain.
So I'm just looking at what amount we can possibly accept and still be profitable.
Any views on my maths skills (or lack thereof) will be appreciated :)
Thanks