Would it be unreasonable to reduce an offer on a house as a result of the top of the chain refusing to commit to a completion date two months after conveyancing was completed? Our mortgage offer is going to expire shortly and the rate we’re being offered will cost us an extra £2k in interest over the fixed period. So I’m trying to gauge whether it’s reasonable to reduce the offer by that amount and then the reduction could potentially be passed up the chain to the cause of the delay.