Just wondering who would generally expected to pay these, the vendor or the buyer?
The first one is an absent landlord indemnity policy as the ground rent has never been collected-£2 per year. My solicitor has asked the vendor to pay it, is this normal practice?
The other one which I am awaiting further details of is an indemnity policy for the lease which is illegible. For the house we’re selling we have a copy of the lease in the original, hard to read script and one that is typed. Our vendors are only able to supply the lease in the hard to read script, so my solicitors are going to send me details about an indemnity policy. I’m not sure what to think about this. Has anyone else had to have this because the lease can’t be read properly?