We are selling our flat to a first time buyer, and buying a more expensive house which has been rented out, we have been told there is no onward property purchase for our seller.
We are close to exchange and our seller has asked us to top up the deposit we are getting from buyer, which we could do with savings but I am wondering why they want us to do this as they have no onward purchase that they need this for. We have a reasonable amount of equity in our flat which is being used to fund the purchase, not our savings (which aren’t huge and are basically just a few months salary for both of us). I could understand if they were buying somewhere and needed a deposit for this, but this seems unnecessary. And if our buyer pulled out after exchange we would be out of pocket but our seller would be sitting on a significant sum of money! I know it is supposed to be a 10% deposit but it must be quite normal to have to accept a lower amount - even when there is an onward purchase in a chain?