I am in the process of selling my late DF's property, which is an upper four in a block. It went on the market on Tuesday morning and by lunchtime there were four offers, two verbal and two written, submitted. It needs work done to it and the offers are all apparently from developers. The property has now gone to a closing date and as of Friday, there were also three notes of interest submitted, on top of the four offers.
One viewer asked about the driveway, which I was always led to believe was owned by my DF. In the area we live, the driveways tend to be owned by the upper house, if the property has one. However, my solicitor contacted me on Friday to advise she has looked at title deeds and plans, and it appears that half of the length of the drive area only belongs to my father, while the other half is shared with the neighbour. His doorway is at the side of the building and I was always under the impression he only had right of access over the drive to get into his home, but apparently not.
This is complete news to me and surprising, but now I am worried that it will be an issue with buyers. Will it be really off-putting to only fully own half of a driveway?