I wasn't sure if I should put this is legal but I have a solicitor looking at it so I'm looking for opinions or experiences.
The deeds of the property we want to buy shows that they don't own a few feet of the garden. The nearest part to the road. The garden goes up to the road and it's as if a space ( only on the plan) was left with the intention of putting a footpath in but it never happened. There is no fence or boundary and you'd just assume it was all garden if you saw it
It is in a small rural village so no one noticed. It's not been formerly adopted by the council. No one knows who actually owns it. It's been like that for 10nyears or more.
Our lovely Solicitor suggests we ask the seller to provide an indemnity insurance should any legal action for right of access and possibly apply for adverse possession
Or drop out
Dropping out of the sale would be easiest but the houses in our price bracket rarely appear in the village so that's a last resort
It's an unusual situation but I thought I would ask if anyone had come across anything like this before?