To put this into context, I’m not in the UK so I’m asking more of a moral question than a legal one.
I have a two bedroom buy to let that has been rented for the last four years. The rent is below market value but I didn’t increase it as the tenant paid reliably and didn’t give trouble.
The flat was completely renovated when he moved in, the walls were freshly painted and I have plenty of photographs.
At the handover the flat was dirty and the walls heavily marked. Examples are a glass of red wine splashed on the living room wall, a large plant that has left a dark stain on a whole wall, heavy scratches from furniture, stickers stuck to walls that can’t be removed without damaging the paint. Generally the walls are all very grey and dirty.
As every wall is affected by at least one extreme stain, as he agreed at handover and signed , I planned to do a complete repaint, which will cost more than his deposit. I have two babies so can’t do the work myself.
The tenant disputes this saying that he only wants to pay for the paint over the actual extreme marks and he shouldn’t have to pay for the rest of the wall. However that would obviously look rubbish as the walls wouldn’t match.
It’s been 7 years since I painted my own flat and if I compare his walls are four or five times more damaged than mine, which have a few screws and finger marks.
What would you do? I want to be fair, but I won’t be able to rent it to the same level of tenant if the walls aren’t closer to the level they were when he moved in.