Hello
Have been on HMRC website and tried looking at previous posts but still not completely clear - hope someone can help.
I will round up numbers for ease.
I bought a flat in 1991 for £90K (mortgage of around £70K). My name only.
In 2004 it was worth about £350K and I remortgaged a further £100 to contribute to buying a house with DH which was bought in his name only.
Also in 2004, I started letting the flat.
Last year the value was around £650K and I released £100K for home improvements to our (DH name) house.
Now - in 2018 it is still worth around £650K and my mortgage is around £200 which means that I am looking at a sale profit of around £450K
However if I looked at the profit based on the original purchase price, it would be much higher - £550K
Taking the 18 month rule into account, the flat has been rented for around 50% of the time I've owned it so I owe CGT on approx 50% of the profit. I deduct the £40K allowance as it was my only home for a while which leaves my 'gain' amount which would be taxed at 40%
But is my profit £450 or £550?
I think it's £550 as I have 'cashed in' some of my profit earlier by remortgaging, but DH thinks £450 K
Which is correct? Does the re-mortgaging have any bearing?
And also, is there any allowance for home improvements to the flat? I have probably spent around £40K over the years.
Thank you!