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Remortgage without declaration of solvency

4 replies

tabs112 · 03/01/2019 16:00

Hi mum's.

I divorced 2 years ago and my ex signed over the house to me in return for a cash payment. The house is solely in my name. I am getting a remortgage with a different lender for a better rate. My ex name is not on the current mortgage and never was. It was not an amicable divorce. Why now do I need to contact him for a declaration of solvency? Surely he already signed this when I got the new mortgage two years ago and nothing has changed?

OP posts:
wowfudge · 03/01/2019 16:27

Has whoever is asking for it said why they want it?

tabs112 · 03/01/2019 16:42

It seems to be part of the process. I already sent them the original loan details. The house is solely in my name. It appears to be because he came off the title deeds within the last five years.

OP posts:
Talia99 · 04/01/2019 11:12

Because people going bankrupt have been known to divorce and agree to the solvent spouse getting a spectacularly good divorce settlement. They then remarry after the bankruptcy period is expired.

I’m not sure if this is actually illegal or just means the receiver can go after the money but either way the mortgage company want some guarantee their charge on the house won’t come second to someone else’s.

If you paid him full value for his share, maybe they would accept confirmation of that instead?

tabs112 · 04/01/2019 12:22

I paid him half of the equity in the property less the joint debts.

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