This is probably a really stupid question, but here goes! (Figures are purely theoretical by the way, so the maths may be a little out).
Say you took out a mortgage of £300k at 70% loan to value on a £430k property, on a fixed rate for five years. When you get to the end of the five-year term, let's say you have £260k still to pay off (which means you're now at 60% loan to value, assuming your house is still worth exactly the same as you paid for it!)
If you want to secure another five-year fixed term at this point, how does the bank calculate the new figure? Do they offer you new rates on the basis of a 60% LTV rate, or is every future fixed rate deal based on the initial 70% LTV that you began with?
Thanks!