As part of my divorce I was awarded the house. However his name is kept on for a set time until I'm in a position to take it off. So his names on the mortgage and deeds but he has no claim. I have a court order for this.
The house is leasehold and I've bought the freehold. The leasehold company sent me a TR1 form out which names us both as "transferrees" (his name is on the lease too).
For the whole picture I am selling the house to downsize at the moment.
Can I have the freehold on my name only using the tr1 form? I had assumed the freehold is separate to the title deed?
Land registry sent me information that says need a conveyancer to change a name. The company that owns the lease say they'll send another tr1 form for me to sign in my name only.
His name will come off the title deeds once I sell the house so not concerned about that. What I am concerned about is that I'm buying the freehold but transferring it to both of us. Would this give him a claim where he currently has none?