My Partner and I recently took out a mortgage for a property we’re renovating.
The paperwork with our mortgage offer stated that the first mortgage payment would be taken on the 15th of the month following completion on the property. On this basis we agreed a completion date of 1st September, meaning that the first mortgage payment would be taken on 15th October.
We have a tight budget for the renovation work, and as we’re also still paying rent for the next 3-4 months, every penny in our renovation budget counts. We were therefore shocked and concerned when we realised that our first mortgage payment had been taken today (15th September), a month earlier than we expected.
We called the mortgage lender, and checked that our understanding of when the first payment would be taken was correct (it was). We pointed out that as we had completed on 1st September, there must have been a mistake to take the payment today. The lender informed us that their definition of completion is not the widely agreed and understood definition (i.e. the date the funds are transferred to the vendor, you receive the keys, and the title deeds reflect you as legal owner) but instead they define it as the date the solicitor requests the funds. In our case this was apparently August 31st, and therefore they consider we completed in August, not September. They also stated that our solicitor should have been aware of this, and let us know.
We got in touch with our solicitors who insist that as far as they are concerned, there is only one completion date, in our case 1st September, and that we should take it up with the lender.
So it seems that due to a difference in interpretation of an accepted legal term, we are over £1200 down in our renovation funds, which right now is fairly catastrophic so early in the scheme of things.
Nothing in the paperwork from our lender alludes to them having their own definition of completion, and so we had no reason to question this.
We’re at a slight loss as to how to move forward. Our solicitor has effectively washed her hands. Were we naïve not to confirm with the lender what they meant by ‘completion’ even though our solicitor agrees that there isn’t more than one legal definition? Do we have any redress with our lender?
Thanks