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Property boundary stopping a couple of metres short of the road...

6 replies

SquashedInTight · 03/08/2017 14:05

In real life, the drive (well, parking area shared between 3 houses) extends to the dropped kerb. On the deeds, the house only owns the land to the parking spaces immediately in front of it (fair enough!), but owns no access to the road. Who would own that? I have asked the solicitor but it will take them time to get back to me. Is this going to be a nightmare?

OP posts:
LIZS · 03/08/2017 14:09

Probably the council. Most properties don't own the section which crosses a verge or pavement.

SquashedInTight · 03/08/2017 14:23

It might be that, if the plans are really not to scale. It looks like someone else owns part of the car park too.

OP posts:
StarTravels · 03/08/2017 14:36

We had a similar thing and our solicitor had to do a highways search to check.

CreekyOldKnee · 03/08/2017 14:43

This sounds fairly normal although when you say you have no right of access I'm assuming there is no ownership. Could you post a diagram?

Solicitors should always do a highways search as mortgage companies require one so this should clear up the issue.

CreekyOldKnee · 03/08/2017 14:44

Sorry, I mean there is a right of access but no ownership of the land over which you require access.

m0therofdragons · 03/08/2017 14:51

We have a parking area where 10 cars have allocated parking. The general areas like the drive in and turning circle must be allocated to a house so the builder split it up like a jigsaw where we all "own"
A random section (us with the biggest area despite being smallest of the 5 houses). It's actually meaningless in reality as we have to allow access so can't build or change its appearance and everyone is responsible for maintenance of it regardless of who "owns" it.

However, if it's the pavement then I'd assume council own it.

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