Feel a little foolish even asking this and could pick up phone to solicitor but thought I'd try here first. Anyway, if it's agreed that, e.g., a 10% deposit is given at time that contracts are exchanged, do I actually have to hand over that money? I'm selling and buying so there will be the deposit from the buyer of my house I'm assuming. So ...can this be used as my deposit or does it not work like that? Believe it or not this is the fourth house Ive sold but haven't for so long Ive totally forgotten everything! Having read this back it sounds jumbled so the house I'm selling is, e.g., 500,000. The house I'm buying is 400,000. The buyer of mine will put down 50,000 deposit. I would be liable for putting down 40,000 deposit. Can the 50,000 be used for my deposit or do I physically have to ensure I can get £40,000 at time of exchange? If so where does this money usually come from? I think I recall many moons ago having something called a bridging loan for a week or so? This time I won't have a mortgage so couldn't go to a building society. Anyone know please?