I know, I know . . .
I am a recent divorcee and my consent order states that the matrimonial home be sold and that I receive 90% of the proceeds and my ex receives 10%. I'm very happy with this! - but how does it work? I have been in this house for 20 years, we were in rented and there was no chain on this house. Easy peasy.
My house has just gone on the market, it's a lovely family home and the EA says it should sell easily. I saw a lovely house on Saturday I should easily be able to afford, can I make an offer even though my house hasn't sold?
I know this probably sounds daft but it's the first time I've had to do this on my own!