Read some where recently (on here/in press?) that so many people are after "doer uppers" that they are now just priced as if they had already been done up minus the cost of doing it IYSWIM?
So if a property would be worth x if developed (extended/rennovated) and the cost of development was y -- then the value of the house would be x-y?
What do you think? Could the price of an undeveloped house be pitched like that -- or is there some sort of formula where the purchaser would want to see a % of the development uplift in their pocket?