This is one hell of a muddy situation and I'm hoping someone on here will be able to she'd some light on it. I'm pretty much resigned to the fact that we will have to go to court, but who is liable? The following timeline is compiled from conversations with the parties involved.
July 2008 - move into rental property and pay deposit to letting agents
Letting agents pass deposit to Mr B
Mr M is owner of the house and it goes into receivership in 2012
We pass details of deposit to new property management company and assume that they will transfer it across
We pay rent to property management company
We move out, property management company does inspection, no grounds to retain any of the deposit
We subsequently contact PM company, they do not have deposit
Letting agents do not have deposit, they passed it onto the landlord
Receivers referred query to PM company
I have the strong feeling that the owner of the property had rent paid to a friend who then paid or didn't pay the mortgage so that Mr M wasn't liable for the tax.
I can't quite figure out who is liable for this. It's clear that the deposit NEVER went into a secure scheme, so the LA, Mr B and Mr M are at fault. But the PM company should have tracked it down, so they were at fault. And then... Do the receivers come into play, should we chase it through them?
It's not an insubstantial amount of money, especially when my work have cocked up my latest pay packet before I my maternity leave is up. Awful.