Hello,
I'm just wondering if I'm being thick or snesible with this theory? It's kind of a two part question?
DS2 is looking to be a first time buyer in a few months time. His real budget is £250K but could pay a tiny more.
In the area that he is looking there are lots of lovely flats at that price, presumably due to the fact that the stamp duty threshold changes from 1% to 3% on the WHOLE AMOUNT, when you pay over £250k.
He also may well sell up in two to three years after buying as he'd really prefer be in nearer London (he's moving for a job and doesn't want to rent for a long time).
Given the above conditions, are these two statements then a sensible conclusion:
If he buys at over £250k it will cost him a lot more than if he buys at £249,999.
He would be much wiser to buy something at £240k in that he hopes to sell in a few years and if he buys at £250+ it would need the property to rise in value by a significant amount over that short period in order for propsective purchasors not to want to only pay up to £249,999 - i.e. the price he bought it for.
So what I mean is, if he buys at £240 there is some hope of an increase in value (especially if he does a bit of work in the property), but if he buys at v close to £250 there is very little hope and it is hard to significantly improve a flat by, say £20,000 as you can't really extend!
I think I'm being logical but I'm not quite sure. Can you let me know? Thank you.