Who owns pavement (ostensibly public) outside your house?

[annoyednow]

Sorry in advance if I'm more annoying than annoyed at this stage. However, I was looking at the neighbours planning application plans and they have put their boundary outside their property onto the pavement.

They are a corner house and their side wall is adjacent to the footpath. No wall or separation in between. I think they have have claimed the airspace underneath their fascia/soffit and guttering until it hit the ground and then drawn this as their boundary. Not where their side wall actually makes contact with the ground.

Do the council etc. own the entire footpath or/and is their version possible or baloney? In London. Normal looking roads and footpath. They stepped back the boundary when the house and it guttering ended and their brick wall along the garden is adjacent to the footpath

Council, usually

It is part of the highway

(not an expert)

Council unless it's a private road, in which case all of the residents are responsible for it.

have you put your objection in yet?

it does seem common though, especially with terraced houses having no gardens and with the front door opening onto the street, for eaves, gutters and windowsills to project beyond the building line.

Yes, objection lodged. No issue with overhand of roof stuff on the other side of their their property. But just wondering as they've drawn an imaginery line down from the furthest edge of guttering and claimed pavement from there back to their house face. I think highways will get to comment. It kinda highlights how they've done their calculations on our side too, but then extended the line all down our garden.

They may need to send in diff ownership cert. If they do, I guess they may withdraw and maybe start to build. However, the fence is ours and completely on our land. I'm afraid they'll pull this up. I'll have to have a plan of action in that event. Sigh. Fed up with being under siege.