Before WW2 there was a greater divide between rich and poor in the sense that they used entirely different services, and their lives almost never overlapped in any material way.
Thanks to evacuation and conscription during the war, rich and poor were forced to rub shoulders a lot more than previously which led to a greater awareness than previously of issues of poverty, deprivation and disadvantage.
This led to the foundation of the NHS and also the 1944 Education Act with free secondary schooling for all, amongst other things. For the first time, increased shared experiences and use of resources meant a gradual narrowing of the gap statistically between rich and poor in terms of income and life outcomes.
Yet we now see this gap increasing again, and we have to ask ourselves why, given that a great deal of funding has been poured into education and healthcare in recent years, (both important contributors to enhanced life expectancy, etc). The only answer I can think of is increased polarisation between the better off and worse off, and consequently less shared experiences and use of resources.
Unless rich and poor mingle, and use the same (good quality) facilities, I think we are pissing in the wind as far as improving social inclusion is concerned. Rationing things according to some notional, subjective definition of worthiness or need is a lazy and ignorant bureaucratic habit that does more harm than good.
We must start being a lot more realistic if we are to deal with this problem. This is because the countries with the lowest levels of social deprivation are the ones who have made the broadest and most extensive investments into social welfare provision. These countries do not ration their provision or dot it about amongst any particular group that happens to be in favour politically at any given time. They are consistent and inclusive in their approach over a seriously long period of time.
This is what we have to aim for.