Hi!
I'm 40+1 with my 3rd child.
My 1st was born at 38+6 (induced due to waters breaking and nothing happened) 2nd born at 41+1 after 2 sweeps.
With my 2nd born my sweeps were so painful but the 2nd one must of worked?
My first sweep with this pregnancy didn't hurt AT ALL....is that a negative sign?! I was fully ready for serious discomfort based on my last pregnancy sweep but literally nothing? She said I'm 1cm (although who isn't after 3 kids lol)
I know nobody will know or have answers etc but I'm so confused by the lack of pain
Thanks!