Have been really curious about this, because it doesn't make sense to me!
I know the 48 hour window of conception - I was doing ovulation tests to check I was ovulating, it was the very beginning of our TTC and I was just beginning to observe my cycle and make note of it etc. I got positive tests on days 13 and 14 - and we DTD both days and had done up all that week anyway so no idea about the gender determining thing, and we were lucky enough to get pregnant that month. My cycles were between 27 and 31 days long. I dated what would have been my next pregnancy at an average of 30 days just to be sure.
So my question
- the doctors and nurses took my date from the first day of my last period, standard yes? But I know it can't possibly be...aged from that date because I know conception was 13 or 14 days from the date they are working off - or 9 or 10 if you work from period end.
Had my scan last week and working from their aging, I was 12+3 - but working from conception, really 10+something. From the size of my little wriggler, they re-dated me at 13+4 - taking me even further away from it's actual age!
So now I'm thinking - when it comes to them saying I am overdue, if it comes to that, will I actually be? Or will wriggler just be hanging around a couple more weeks as it would if everyone dated from conception? It's important to me not to be induced if possible and it just makes me wonder - surely doctors and midwives know conception doesn't happen on the first day of your last period
So why do they do it like that?
Years ago your average woman didn't have access to all the tools we ourselves have now to track fertility - and inadvertently or deliberately - know ovulation times. But we do now - so why don't they take that into account? I know individual gestation weeks can vary but still...
I'm guessing there's a reason if they insist on keeping that way of dating things but I can't see why...curious minds wish to know!