Need someone's opinion

[KrissyLuvSam]

If me and my partner already have a son and he has a son with someone else.. What would our chances be of the baby i'm carrying now been a girl?

50/50 - it's always 50/50. The chances don't change due to how many you've had.

50:50

Not true, PrincessScrumpy. Apparently some men only produce male sperm and some only produce female sperm, although it's quite rare. Friends of parents have SIX daughters so perhaps it applies to them though.

I think the more boys you have, the more likely you are to keep having boys and vice versa. But, OP, I don;t think you can take anything significant from your DP having 2 sons already.

Thanks guys. We really want a girl this time.. Fingers crossed I guess xx

Probably 51:49 - globally there are slightly more boys born.

Its luck of the draw tbh. I had 3 boys with my first husband...then a girl and boy with my husband now. And this one is anyones guess lol. You can't always go by what you have had before, I was sure I wouldn't have a girl. My mum had me then 3 boys then a girl. A lot to do is when you conceive apparently as girl sperm lives longer than boy :)

Although there are some people who may have certain sperm abnormalities, there is no statistical evidence that you are likely to keep having boys if you have boys.

Birth rates for boys and girls have been accurately monitored in many countries for many years. Any statistical significance to multiple babies of the same gender has not shown up (and it would have as the sample size is enormous).

There is always a small chance of having 6 girls or something similar; you can easily simulate this by tossing a coin many times. How often do you get series of the same side facing? Each individual toss will still have 50/50 chance of being heads or tails.

As Smiler says, statistically, it remains around 50/50. Never sways far from this.

Actually it does a bit: on 50/50, the chances of having 4 boys should be about 6%. A New York survey found the actual number was about 9% - a 50% increase (statistically significant if sample size big enough). No increase for girls though in that study.

On a different computer today and have this link saved which I think is what onimolap is talking about.

Thanks - that's the one!

The effect was only apparent by the 4th boy. And it's solely as observed - no attempt to explain or find anything predictive. And over 90% have both sexes.

It's an interesting article, but the 4th boy result is only suggestive, not actually statistically significant. If you look up the data, you will see there are only 77 families with 3 boys that went on to have another child. 43 of those had a boy and 34 a girl.

If you quoted these numbers with error bars, you would have 43 ± 6.5, 34 ± 5.8. You can see that these ranges overlap, and therefore there is no statistical difference.

The point of the article is that it's an old wives tale to believe that gender of the child runs in the family. If they wanted to show that statistically there is a higher chance of having a 4th boy, they would have needed a much larger sample size to get a result.