All through the pregnancy I have worked off my last period date with the GP and midwives, however, I happen to know the 2 dates when I had sex with my DH (he was working away that month and only home for a few nights!) and they don't check out with the DD estimate of me ovulataing on day 14 of a 28 day cycle.
One posible conception date date was only 6 days after my period started, could we have concieved then? On day 6 of my cycle?
The other date was 20 days after my period began. In which case, I probably ovulated on around day 17/18 of my cycle rather than the standard day 14.
I don't know which one it was, but a clue may lie in the fact that due to a spotting/cramping scare, I had a very early scan and a strong flashing heartbeat was detected. At the time this was put down as being 6+1.
But I guess it could have been an older fetus - a full 8 days older, so the 6+1 fetus with the heartneat was in fact 7+2. It couldn't have been a 5 days younger fetus, could it? A heartbeat simply wouldn't show up at less than 6 weeks - it wouldn't appear on a fetus that was 5+3, would it??
Or would it? I am confused and can't get a definite answer off reading around.
I would really like to get some clarity because it affects my DD and could mean I end up being induced for being overdue when I'm not actually over due (and I have a horror of induction and want a home birth). It also affects whether I'm likely to have a baby over Christmas and when I start my mat leave.
So should I start flagging this up to my GP and the midwife?
I'm 27+6 now, according to my notes.
Or possibly 29+1.
Or maybe 27+1.
It's become this week's 3am-4am worry topic so am very grateful for your help!