Thanks to anyone who wants to explain a bit to me about this because I don't really get the point you're making.
I understand that GB sold about half of the UK's gold reserves at a time when the price was quite low. It is easy to say now, with hindsight, that it wasn't a good time to sell (although that would only take into account price and not the reason behind the sale). However the money was invested in currency, right? So it isn't like it isn't there anymore, it is just in a different form (euros, dollars and yen).
Also AFAIK the point of selling some gold was to make a comitted move to an economic policy which would inhibit fluctations in inflation. GB said he was committed to stable inflation (appararantly this is what he was referring to with the 'boom and bust' statement).
So to those who seem upset about this move can you tell me why cos I don't get you. (Please try to present arguments and facts and refrain from personal attacks on the PM about being 'a liar' and 'incompetant'.)
Here is a link to something which explains how I see the gold issue.